I think I knew how to show it before. But suddenly just realize I can’t. Say let’s define $latex F(w) = \frac{1}{2 \pi} \int f(t) e^{-i wt} dt$ and the inverse transform $latex \hat{f}(t)= \int F(w) e^{i w t}dw = f(t)$. So we expect $latex f(t)=\frac{1}{2 \pi} \int \int f(\tau) e^{-i w\tau} d\tau e^{iwt}dw$ $latex…
Proof of Fourier inversion formula
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